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For over 20 years, medical students have trusted our QBanks to succeed on the USMLE. We’ve since paired these renowned resources with state-of-the-art OMT questions for osteopathic medical students. Try them for free by toggling to your exam below, submitting your answers, and reviewing the rationales.

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A 17-year-old boy comes to the emergency department due to a right ring finger injury earlier in the day. During a soccer match, he grabbed an opponent's jersey; as the opponent pulled away suddenly, the patient instantly felt a popping sensation and pain in the right ring finger. Examination of the hand shows swelling of the palmar aspect of the distal ring finger. When asked to make a fist, the patient can flex the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints but is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring finger. The tendon of which of the following muscles is most likely injured in this patient?

  1. Flexor carpi ulnaris
  2. Flexor digitorum profundus
  3. Flexor digitorum superficialis
  4. Fourth lumbrical
  5. Palmar interosseous
Submit

A 25-year-old man fractures his right tibia in a motor vehicle collision. His right leg is fixed in a cast, and he requires underarm crutches to ambulate. Two weeks later, the patient comes to the clinic with right upper extremity weakness and numbness. He has no neck or arm pain. The patient is concerned because he is right handed and cannot perform his duties as an electrician. On neurologic examination, there is diminished strength on extension of the right wrist with an absent triceps reflex. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

  1. Accessory
  2. Axillary
  3. Long thoracic
  4. Median
  5. Radial
  6. Suprascapular
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A 27-year-old female comes to the office for right shoulder pain. The pain started 2 weeks ago while she was assembling furniture. Despite using ice packs and taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs several times per day for the past week, the pain is now interfering with her sleep and her job as an operating room technician. She has no significant medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows tenderness to palpation over the anterior aspect of the right shoulder at the bicipital groove. C6 is flexed, rotated right, sidebent right (FRSR). To perform a provocative test that will aid in the diagnosis of this patient, the physician should

  1. Have the patient externally rotate her shoulder against resistance
  2. Place the patient's hand on her back and have her push back against resistance
  3. Resist abduction of the patient's adducted arm
  4. Resist adduction of the patient's abducted arm
  5. Supinate and extend the patient's forearm
Submit

Select a Question sample.

A 31-year-old female is evaluated for left knee pain that started 3 months ago while she was running a half-marathon. Physical examination shows slight tenderness over the lateral knee without effusion or erythema. The McMurray and Ober tests are negative. Squatting and compression of the patella do not elicit pain. There is restriction in left foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The best next step in management of this patient is

  1. Exercises to strengthen the vastus medialis
  2. HVLA for anterior fibular head dysfunction
  3. Muscle energy for posterior fibular head dysfunction
  4. Physical therapy for iliotibial band syndrome
  5. Steroid injection for prepatellar bursitis
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for back pain. The pain is dull and radiates down his right leg and foot. It first started 7 months ago and has been worsening progressively despite taking acetaminophen and using lidocaine patches. The patient does not remember any injury or event that first caused the pain but reports that the symptoms seem to be worse when he works in his garden. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows increased pain on lumbar extension and diminished sensation over the anterior left lower leg and dorsal foot. Strength is normal in both lower extremities. L2-L4 are flexed, rotated left, sidebent left (FRLSL). This patient's sensory loss best correlates with compression of nerve roots that exit between

  1. T11-T12
  2. L1-L2
  3. L3-L4
  4. L5-S1
Submit

A 38-year-old male is evaluated in the emergency department for right arm pain and swelling. He injected intravenous heroin 3 days ago into the antecubital fossa and noticed erythema surrounding the injection site the following day. Vital signs show:

Temperature 38.8 C (101.8 F)
Blood pressure 144/80 mm Hg
Heart rate 105/min
Respiratory rate 15/min
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

Physical examination shows erythema, tenderness, and warmth of the right antecubital fossa with an underlying 1 x 1 cm fluctuant mass. Lymphatic drainage from the affected region primarily drains into the junction of which of the following structures?

  1. Left brachiocephalic and internal jugular veins
  2. Left brachiocephalic vein and superior vena cava
  3. Right brachiocephalic vein and superior vena cava
  4. Right internal jugular and subclavian vein
Submit

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

No. Our OMT questions offer COMLEX-style vignettes to prepare you for what you’ll see on test day, but do not comprehensively cover the NBOME exam blueprints. However, our USMLE QBanks do adhere to each NBME content outline.

We recommend starting early and completing as many questions as you can reasonably accomplish before your exam. Begin by studying about 30 minutes per day and build to 20 questions per day. The goal is to take in the information and avoid overloading yourself. Try to complete a full pass of your QBank before dedicated study and then another during it.

No. We do not offer a free trial for the OMT questions in our COMLEX QBanks. However, you can access free 10-question demos of our USMLE QBanks, which are available in combination with our OMT questions.

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